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PERSONAL TRAINER EXAMINATION BLOCK ONE

1. A muscle has the capability of receiving and responding to various stimuli. It may respond to a nerve impulse, an electrical stimulus applied directly to the surface of the muscle or to a sharp blow to the muscle or one of its tendons. This characteristic is known as __________. * a. Contractility b. Irritability c. Elasticity d. Extensibility

2. The aerobic system utilizes __________ for activity or exercise lasting longer than 2 to 3 minutes. * a. Glucose and fat b. Glucose c. Glucose and protein d. Proteins

3. The contractile proteins found within the thin and thick myofilments of skeletal muscle include: * a. Actin and Myosin b. Troponin and Tropomyosin c. Calcium and Acetylcholine d. ATP and ADP

4. With a __________ contraction, the muscle shortens as the weight is moved against the force of gravity; therefore, the positive is accomplished. With a __________ contraction, the muscle lengthens as weight is move in the direction of the force of gravity; under these circumstances, gravity rather than muscle contraction is the force responsible for the movement. * a. Concentric / Eccentric b. Eccentric / Concentric c. Isometric / Concentric d. Eccentric / Isometric

5. The muscle primarily responsible for a particular movement is called a (an): * a. Synergist b. Antagonist c. Prime Mover d. Insertion

6. __________ fibers are an intermediate type of fiber and are sometimes referred to as fasttwitch oxidative, glycolytic or FOG. This is a large fiber that has good oxidative (aerobic) and glycolytic (anaerobic) properties. This fiber is adaptable to endurance as well as power or speed activities. * a. Slow twitch (Type I) b. Fast twitch (Type IIA) c. Fast twitch (Type IIB) d. None of the above

7. The energy to perform long-term exercise (i.e, 15+ minutes) comes primarily from: * a. Aerobic metabolism b. A combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism, with anaerobic metabolism producing the majority of the ATP c. Anaerobic metabolism d. None of the above

8. Which of the following statements regarding (DOMS) is/are true? * a. DOMS develops 24 – 48 hours after exercise. b. It is related to lactic acid. c. Concentric work causes more delayed muscle soreness than eccentric work. d. All of the above are true.

9. Which of the following is NOT a major food fuel during exercise? * a. Glucose b. Fatty acids c. Protein d. Glycogen

10. In general, the higher the intensity of the activity, the greater the contribution of: * a. Aerobic energy production b. Anaerobic energy production c. The Krebs cycle of the production of ATP d. The electron transport chain to the production of ATP

11. Which muscle protein contains many cross-bridges? * a. Myofibril b. Sarcomere c. Troponin d. Myosin

12. How does the golgi tendon organ respond when stressed? * a. Causes the muscle to relax b. Causes the muscle to contract c. Gives a pins and needles sensation d. Causes muscular tearing

13. Which muscle fiber type has the highest potential for endurance activities? * a. Slow twitch b. Fast twitch c. Short twitch d. Long twitch

14. Muscular soreness associated with actual muscle damage results primarily from which of the following? * a. Eccentric contraction b. Concentric contraction c. Isometric contraction d. Isokenetic contraction

15. A decrease in muscle size and strength due to inactivity is known as? * a. Edema b. Hypertrophy c. Atrophy d. Weakness

16. What do the initials ATP mean in relation to muscular activity? * a. Androgenic tri-phosphate b. Adenosine tri-phosphate c. Amino tri-phosphate d. All tri-phosphate

17. Which acronym refers to an acceptable method of determining training intensity? * a. RPE b. DOMS c. ATP d. VO2

18. The following is true regarding High Blood Pressure. * a. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is chronically elevated. b. It affects more than 30% of all Americans. c. Many people are unaware they have high blood pressure. d. People with high blood pressure have 3 to 4 times the risk of developing coronary heart disease. e. People with high blood pressure have seven times the risk of have a stroke. f. 140 / 90 is considered borderline high blood pressure. g. All of the above are true. h. Three of the above are true.

19. An elevation of either the systolic or diastolic blood pressure is classified as hypertension. The elevation must be measured on two different days, preferably several days apart. To be classified as hypertension, the blood pressure should be more than: * a. 100 / 60 b. 110 / 70 c. 120 / 80 d. 140 / 90

20. For an activity to be considered cardiovascular, it: * a. Must use a large muscle mass b. Must be continuous – 20 minutes or longer c. Must elevate the heart rate beyond the resting value d. Two of the above are true e. All of the above are true

21. Muscular contraction occurs at the level of the sarcomere within the myofibrils. The actin filaments slide inward over the myosin filaments resulting in: * a. Shortening of the sarcomere b. A phenomenon known as the sliding filament theory c. Grouping of fibers d. Two of the above e. None of the above

22. Which are principles of training? * a. Progression b. Heat Price protocol c. Overload d. Body Composition e. Two of the above f. Three of the above g. None of the above

23. A point on a limb closer to the trunk is called: * a. Posterior b. Distal c. Prone d. Proximal

24. Knee extensions are performed in which movement planes? * a. Frontal b. Multiple planes c. Sagittal d. Transverse

25. Which of the following would be beneficial in preventing heat injury? * a. Acclimatization b. Fluid replacement c. Evaluate environmental conditions d. All of the above

26. In preventing injuries, hydration is very important because: * a. It controls breathing and the Valsalva maneuver b. It helps regulate carbohydrate utilization during cardiovascular exercise c. It helps regulate body temperature and electrolyte balance. d. It helps prevent blood pooling during the cool-down

27. In order for a two joint muscle to assist with the movement that is not its primary function, the muscle must be _____________ at one end. * a. Flexed b. Shortened c. Tight d. Stretched e. Elevated

28. Lordosis is a back disorder in which the pelvic girdle has * a. an excessive anterior tilt b. a lateral curvature c. a neutral, flat position d. an excessive posterior tilt

29. __________________are connective tissue that connect bone to bone, while _____________________are connective tissue that connect a muscle to the bone. * a. Ligaments, Cartilage b. Tendons, Cartilage c. Ligaments, Tendons d. Tendons, Ligaments e. Tendons, Bursa

30.. The American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology recommend that pregnant women not exceed ____ BPM heart rate? * a. 120 b. 115 c. 140 d. 160

31. RPE stands for _______ and is a great alternative to checking heart rate. * a. Rate of perceived exertion b. Rate of pressure exercising c. Rate of power exercising d. None of the above

32. Calculate heart rate reserve (Karvonen); 42 year old, with resting heart rate of 60 bpm at an intensity of 70%. * a. 145 - 157 bpm b. 120 - 139 bpm c. 74 - 85 bpm d. 37 - 149 bpm

33. A proper breathing pattern during resistance training is * a. The valsalva maneuver b. Hold your breath throughout each set c. Inhale during exertion phase of exercise d. Exhale during exertion phase of exercise

34. Which kind of lift must you be performing if your muscle action is lengthening? * a. Kinetic b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Eccentric

35. __________ is the maximum amount of force that can be exerted by a muscle. * a. Muscular endurance b. Muscular strength c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Muscular contraction

36. All measurements for Body Composition should be: * a. Taken on the right side of the body b. Only be recorded in alphabetical order c. Taken once d. Never be taken through clothing

37. Relative proportion of fat and fat-free (lean) tissue can be assessed and are reported as * a. Percent body fat b. Body composition c. Hydrodensitometry d. Near-infrared interactance

38. Calculate a 65 – 75% exercise target heart rate range using the Karvonen’s formula with the following information: 35 year old male, resting heart rate is 72, intermediate fitness level. * a. 145 – 157 beats per minute b. 120 – 139 beats per minute c. 74 – 85 beats per minute d. 137 – 149 beats per minute

39. According to ACOG, women should avoid exercises in the supine position __________ * a. After the first trimester b. After the second trimester c. After the first month d. After the first week

40. Which of the following statements about osteoporosis is/are true? * a. Osteoporosis is a gradual loss or thinning of the bone. b. Osteoporosis is a concern in senior adults. c. Weight bearing and resistance training exercises can help maintain bone mass. d. All of the above are true.

41. Which of the following statements about arthritis is/are true? * * a. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis. b. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by the degeneration of the cartilage of the bones that form the joints, leaving two surfaces of bones in contact with each other. c. Exercise sessions should include an extended warm-up and cool-down to improve joint mobility. d. Two of the above are true. e. All of the above are true.

42. When a soldier marches and his arms move front to back, which plane of motion do the arms move through? * * a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Anterior

43. The most common way to sprain the ankle joint is by * * a. Inversion of the ankle b. Eversion of the ankle c. Adducting the ankle d. A and C e. Only C

44. What exercise is an example of horizontal adduction? * * a. Bench Press b. Pull-ups c. Side-Lateral Raises d. Lat-Pulldowns e. B and D

45. When performing a pressing movement with the upper body, the scapula should be * * a. Flat against the pad b. Protracted and Elevated c. Retracted and Depressed d. Retracted and Elevated e. The scapular position is not important here

46. In an effort to improve flexibility, NFPA recommends: * * a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) b. Ballistic stretching. c. The plough and hurdler’s stretches. d. Static stretches held for 10-30 seconds per repetition.

47. When performing a Lat-Row, please select the following that match to this movement. * a. Prime Mover- Biceps Brachii Assistant- Rhomboids, Traps, Triceps. Antagonist-Pectoralis Major b. Prime Mover- Latissimus Dorsi. Assistor- Biceps Brachii, Trapezius, Rhomboids, Anterior Deltoid, and Triceps Antagonist- Pectoralis Major c. Prime Mover- Latissimus Dorsi. Assistor-Biceps Brachii Posterior Deltoids, Rhomboids, and Trapezius AntagonistPectoralis Major d. Prime Mover- Pectoralis Major Assistant- Latissimus Dorsi, Biceps Brachii, Triceps, Traps Antagonist- Rectus Abdominus e. None of the above are accurate

48. Which muscle is the Primary mover in shoulder flexion? * * a. Latissimus Dorsi b. Pectoralis Major c. Biceps Brachii d. Anterior Deltoid

49. Which group of muscles are responsible for extension of certain joints of the body? * a. The Triceps, Biceps, and Quadriceps b. The Quadriceps, Gluteus Maximus, Triceps, and Erector Spinae Group c. The Rectus Abdominis, Obliques, Gastrocnemius, and Soleus d. A and B e. None of the above

50. A muscle fiber contraction that produces forces during the shortening phase is known as: * * a. Concentric Contraction b. Eccentric Contraction c. Isometric Contraction d. Hypo-mobility e. Cramping

51. The acronym, DOMS stands for: * a. Delayed Osmotic Muscular Straining b. Delayed Onset Muscular Strengthening c. Delayed Onset Muscular Soreness d. Delayed Overload Muscular Strengthening e. Delayed Osmotic Myofibril Splitting

52. Which repetition range will produce the greatest improvements in muscular strength? * * a. 1-6 b. 12-15 c. 8-12 d. 20-30

53. Negative Repeition Training is a method of training that emphasizes the ______________ * * a. Phase of muscle contraction. b. Lengthening c. Concentric d. Eccentric e. A and C f. None

54. You have a client who has had the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae fused. They are 20 pounds overweight but otherwise healthy. Which exercise(s) would you NOT use in your exercise program for this client? * a. Incline dumbbell press (45 degree angle) b. Standing calf raises - machine c. Dumbbell shoulder press d. Bicep curls e. A and C f. B and C

55. Normal hyperextension occurs in which joints? * * a. Knee / elbow b. Lumbar spine / hip c. Both A and B d. None of the above

56. How should a trainer advise a client with regard to progression of the exercise program? * a. The progression should be gradual and slow. b. The progression should be at specific increments based on a calendar schedule (e.g., add 10% every 2 weeks). c. Be aggressive in increasing the program in order to increase fitness. d. Progress the program only when the client feels ready.

57. You have a client who has had the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae fused. They are 20 pounds overweight but otherwise healthy. Which exercise(s) would you NOT use in your exercise program for this client? * a. Incline dumbbell press (45 degree angle) b. Standing calf raises - machine c. Dumbbell shoulder press d. Bicep curls e. A and C f. B and C

58. RICE refers to: * a. Relaxation, ice, compression, energy b. Relaxation, incremental heat, care for injury, energy c. Rest, ice, common sense, energy d. Rest, ice, compression, elevation

59. Which statement is true regarding the Gastrocnemius? * a. Primary movement is plantar flexion and it is not a two joint muscle b. Primary movement is dorsi flexion and it is a two joint muscle c. Primary movement is plantar flexion and secondary movement is knee flexion d. None of the above

60. Which of these programs would be more likely to result in muscle hypertrophy? * a. High – resistance, low – repetition b. Low - resistance, high – repetition c. Low – resistance, low – repetition with free weights d. Low – resistance, low – repetition with resistance machines

61. Evaluate the following client’s risk factors: Mary is a 35 year old that has not exercised in the past six (6) years. Her blood pressure is 142/96. She has tried to quit smoking twice during the past year, but has not succeeded. * a. Mary has two positive risk factors b. Mary has 3 positive risk factors c. Mary has 2 positive risk factors and 1 negative risk factor d. Mary has 3 positive risk factors and 1 negative risk factor

62. For a 3-site calculation for skin fold measurements, you would measure which of the following sites for women? * a. Chest, abdomen, thigh b. Triceps, suprailiac, thigh c. Triceps, abdomen, thigh d. Chest suprailiac, thigh e. Chest, subscapular, abdomen

63. Which of the following recommendations regarding resistance-training guidelines are for the apparently healthy adult? * a. Minimum of 4 exercise that train the major muscle groups, 8 – 12 repetitions at least 3 days per week. b. Minimum of 12 exercises that train the major muscle groups, 12 – 15 repetitions, and a maximum of twice per week. c. Minimum of 15 – 18 exercises that train the major muscle groups, 10 – 12 repetitions, at least 4 days per week. d. Minimum of 8 – 10 exercises that train the major muscle groups, 8 – 12 repetitions, at least 2 days per week.

64. With the __________ system, the exerciser performs successive sets of progressive light to heavy resistance while at the same time decreasing the number of repetitions. * a. Single and multiple set b. Pyramid c. Super set d. Circuit

65. What would you recommend to a sedentary, mildly obese client who has no medical limitations, but does not like stationary bicycles? a. Stairmaster b. Cross country ski machine c. Treadmill d. Rowing machine e. Any of the above

66. The __________ rapidly increases the heart rate oxygen consumption. It may lead to overextension in sedentary clients and adds 4.6 times the body weight to the patellar surface. * a. Treadmill b. Semi – recumbent bike c. Cross country ski machine d. Stair climber

67. The __________ can be used for those who need or want to take the weight off their joints. a. Treadmill b. Semi – recumbent bike c. Cross country ski machine d. Stair climber

68. The __________ is difficult to master but is useful for those who are interested in an exercise that uses many major muscle groups but is “non-impact”. a. Treadmill b. Semi – recumbent bike c. Cross country ski machine d. Stair climber

69. The __________ is an excellent compliment to any running program and offers some diversity for those who are bored with their current exercise program. A concern for some is that it puts stress on the knees and lower back. * a. Treadmill b. Semi – recumbent bike c. Cross country ski machine d. Stair climber

70. Which of the following would be beneficial in preventing heat injury? * a. Acclimatization b. Fluid replacement c. Evaluate environmental conditions d. All of the above

71. Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol away from the arterial walls to the liver? a. Low density lipoprotein b. High density lipoprotein c. Very low density lipoprotein d. Triglycerides

72. The seven-site skin fold assessment involves measuring __________ diagonal folds and __________ vertical folds. * a. 1 and 6 b. 2 and 5 c. 3 and 4 d. 4 and 3 e. 5 and 2

73. Which is not a two-joint muscle? * a. Gastrocnemius b. Soleus c. Hamstrings d. All of the above

74. The systolic value in a blood pressure reading represents: * a. The amount of pressure the blood puts against the wall of the arteries at the beginning of the beat. b. The amount of pressure the blood puts against the wall of the arteries at the end of the beat. c. When the heart is at rest. d. Two of the above. e. None of the above.

75. The _______ plane divides the body into right and left halves. _____ and _____ occur in this plane. * a. Lateral, Flexion, Extension b. Anatomical, Horizontal Abduction, Horizontal Adduction c. Sagittal, Flexion, Extension d. Transverse, Concentric, Eccentric

76. The most common form of ankle injury occurs when the ankle is in ___________. * a. Inversion a. Eversion b. Plantar Flexion c. Dorsi Flexion

77. The movement that decreases the joint angle, bringing the bones closer together is called * a. Flexion b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction

78. Cardiac output can be calculated by multiplying: * a. Heart rate and stroke volume b. Stroke volume and the difference between the oxygen carrying capacity of the arterial blood and venous blood c. Oxygen consumption and heart rate d. Heart rate and blood volume

79. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate that is not digestible by the body and passes straight through the digestive system? * a. Fats b. Proteins c. Sugars d. Fiber

80. Which of the following muscle actions occurs when the length of the muscle does not change, but muscle tension is increased through enhanced neuromuscular recruitment patterns? * a. Concentric isotonic b. Eccentric isotonic c. Isokenetic d. Isometric

BLOCK TWO - Anatomy

81. The adductor group is responsible for movement at: * a. Knee flexion and assist with hip extension when the knee is extended b. Knee extension and assist with hip flexion when the knee is flexed c. Hip flexion

Adductors

d. Hip adduction

82. The quadriceps are responsible for movement at: * Hip extension and external rotation of the hip Knee flexion and assist with hip extension when the knee is extended Knee extension and assist with hip flexion when the knee is flexed Quadriceps

Plantar flexion and assist with knee flexion when the foot is dorsiflexed

83. The trapezius is responsible for movement at: Trapezius

Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Elbow flexion and supination Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction Retracts the scapula

84. The biceps are responsible for movement at: Biceps

Elbow extension Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Elbow flexion and supination Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction

Pectoralis Major

85. The pectoralis major is responsible for movement at: * Trunk flexion Extension and hyperextension of the spine Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction

Gastrocnemius

86. The gastrocnemius is responsible for movement at: * Hip extension and external rotation of the hip Knee flexion and assist with hip extension when the knee is extended Knee extension and assist with hip flexion when the knee is flexed Plantar flexion and assist with knee flexion when the foot is dorsiflexed

Illiopsoas

87. The illiopsoas is responsible for movement at: * Knee flexion and assist with hip extension when the knee is extended Trunk flexion Hip flexion Hip adduction Rhomboids

88. The rhomboids are responsible for movement at: * Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Elbow flexion and supination Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction Retracts the scapula

Triceps

89. The triceps are responsible for movement at: Elbow extension Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Elbow flexion and supination Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction

Erector Spinae

90. The erector spinae group is responsible for movement at: Hip extension and external rotation of the hip Posterior Deltoid

Trunk flexion Extension and hyperextension of the spine Hip flexion

91. The posterior deltoid is responsible for movement at: Elbow extenson Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction Retracts the scapula

Rectus Abdominis

92. The rectus abdominis is responsible for movement at: Hip extension and external rotation of the hip Trunk flexion Extension and hyperextension of the spine Hip flexion Gluteus Maximus

Anterior Deltoid

93. The gluteus maximus is responsible for movement at: Hip extension and external rotation of the hip Extension and hyperextension of the spine Hip flexion Hip adduction

Hamstrings

94. The anterior deltoid is responsible for movement at: Shoulder flexion and horizontal adduction Elbow flexion and supination Shoulder extension and horizontal abduction Retracts the scapula

95. The hamstrings are responsible for movement at: Hip extension and external rotation of the hip Knee flexion and assist with hip extension when the knee is extended Knee extension and assist with hip flexion when the knee is flexed Plantar flexion and assist with knee flexion when the foot is dorsiflexed

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CPT Test - online — NFPA

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